Hi there! Thanks for the quick answer! I Used the -2LL of each model and also the parameters! Thanks for the tip, I didn't consider that but will defenitly look at it. However, my models are ready and finished. Now, I have an other question that I would like to ask. Maybe you know the answer to this, but it seems to be a difficult subject. If you estimate two models (both multilevel logistic regressions) to look at the association of the socioeconomic status and alcoholconsumtion. My model contains (1) moderate drinkers, (2) hazardous problematic drinkers and (3) harmful problematic drinkers. The last two groups are also used as one group 'problematic drinkers'. In the first regression I want to look at the odds of being a problematic drinkers (in comparison to moderate drinkers). In the second regression I want to have a closer look at the 'problematic drinkers' and therefore look at the odds of being a harmful problematic drinkers (in comparison to hazardous problematic drinkers). Suppose that the log odds of women in the first regression is -0.45, and in the second regression -1.24. Could I say - with caution - that women seems to have a negative log odds of being a problematic drinker and that the logodds strengthen when the problematic drinking is becoming more dangerous (e.g. harmful drinking). In other words, could I make ane comparisons between the two models, If I do so with some caution? Thanks in advance! Emilie
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