I have no idea how to condense my question into one sentence but what I am trying to do is perform a macro on all columns that name starts with a successive pattern (S1-S100).   So let's say there are 500 columns in which that 100 of them are named S1_Something to S100_Something and the rest are named SOMETHING1_Something to SOMETHING400_Something. I want to perform a macro on all of the columns that start with S1-S100. So what I have so far is kind of an ugly way of doing it but it is PROC SQL; CREATE TABLE ques AS SELECT * FROM dictionary.columns WHERE memname="HAVE"; QUIT; PROC TRANSPOSE DATA=ques OUT=quest; VAR name; RUN; DATA quest; SET quest; ARRAY cols COL1-COL%EVAL(&sqlobs.-2); DO OVER cols; IF SCAN(cols, 1, "_") IN ("S1", "S2", "S3") THEN PUT cols; END; RUN; But instead of outputting the column into the log, I would then concatenate it into a macro variable and then shove that macro variable into a macro that will then loop over all of the strings inside the macro variable and perform the macro on that. So what I have should work however I was wondering if there was an easier way of doing it. Basically having an array of "S1"-"S100" and seeing if it is in that array but I don't believe that is possible. I wouldn't be able to do LIKE S% because it would also grab all of the columns that are like S% which is all of the columns and not just S1_Something - S100_Something.    Go ahead and ask any questions if you are confused on what I want exactly since I'm bad at explaining.  ... View more

Trying to set all of the values in an array to 0. It seems like it would be easy. If you have an array called have, then just have=0;. But then I get an error  ERROR: Array subscript out of range at line 37 column 13. Not sure how to solve this error. I know I can just do DO OVER have; have=0; END; but I thought that this way should work.  ... View more