My confusion comes from the fact that I have two diseases, and the risk ratios are defined as the presence of disease B on the sub-population with disease A (A+) versus the presence of disease B on the sub-population without A (A-). Both sub-populations add up to the same population. I was thinking about standardizing the rate of sub-population A+ and A- to that of the general population, but I don't know if that makes any sense being that both come from the same population. Another option is to restrict the general population to the age at risk for the diseases. But this is not very precise.
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