Thank you for your responses. I've come to the conclusion and in my opinion partial-automation can still be considered automated albeit partial. Here's my reasoning:
1. False Dilemma - Specific to this instance, to say something is 100% automated or 0% automated is also known as "either/or fallacy", "black and white fallacy", "excluded middle fallacy" or "all or nothing fallacy" -- it omits choices when other choices are available.
2. Definition of "automation" by Dictionary.com, WordReference.com, The FreeDictionary.com, defines it as "the technique, method, or system of operating or controlling a process by highly automatic means, as by electronic devices, reducing human intervention to a minimum." Notice it says reducing, not eliminating completely. Other definitions include similar wording such as Wikipedia.com that include the verbiage "...with minimal or reduced human intervention."
3.There is precedent in industries, including software, hardware, robotics, and the automobile industry (as well as others) that use the nomenclature of various levels of automation (Level 1, Level 2, Level 3, etc. Partial vs. Fully Automated).
4. Windows task scheduler's own definition states that it "enables you to automatically perform routine tasks..." and when you click the help it states "Schedule computer tasks that run automatically". So regardless of the process before or after, I do not have to sit at my computer and click run, I've scheduled the task off hours regardless of what happens before or after and in that regard, it's partially-automated.
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