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wernie
Quartz | Level 8

Hi all,

This is probably a bit of a silly question, but I can't seem to find anything about this. I know in SPSS with other tests, a p value of 1.00 would mean absolute certainty and there is usually something that isn't quite right, but I'm not sure what a p value of 1 means in the output for negative binomial or if it is different in SAS. I have a two variables, plus the interaction between the two (which is what I'm interested in). Can anyone help me so I know how I should be interpreting this result or if there is something that I possibly did wrong that I need to redo?

Thanks Smiley Happy

5 REPLIES 5
StatDave
SAS Super FREQ

If you are saying that you fit a negative binomial model including interaction, like this:

proc genmod;

  model y = x1 x2 x1*x2 / dist=negbin;

  run;

and that the p-value reported for the x1*x2 interaction was 1.0000, then this simply means that there is no evidence that the interaction parameter is nonzero.

loredana_cornea
Obsidian | Level 7

If you have a database with lots of lots of observations the p-value (excuse my language) "don't mean shit".

It's going to be 1 no matter what you do. So in this particular case you'll have to find another type of measurement

PGStats
Opal | Level 21

Hmm...

Too much data ==> Meaningless results

Hmm....

I have to think about that one.

PG
lvm
Rhodochrosite | Level 12 lvm
Rhodochrosite | Level 12

I strongly disagree with this statement from loredana.cornea.

wernie
Quartz | Level 8

Yes, it's definitely a dataset with a lot of observations!

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