12-23-2013 10:54 AM
I have continuous data for 8 subjects and around 4-5 data for each subject.
I would like to see the correlation between the dependent variable and the independent variable.
But first, I want to see if I can mix the data together without taking into account that there is 8 subjects.
In fact, I want to see if samples taken from the same donor are as independent as the samples taken from different donors.
Therefore, I have to justify mixing all samples together which would ease my analysis.
Can anyone tell me if it is correct: To justify mixing all samples together, I have to see if the variance within-subject is less than the variance between-subject? Or is it the contrary?
To do that, I used the donor as a random effect in Mixed models procedure and I compare the within-subject effect (residual variance) to the between-subject effect (donor variance).
Thank you very much!
12-23-2013 11:25 AM
I already have my within-subject variance and between-subject variance.
I need help in the interpretation of these results.
My goal is to justify mixing the samples together.
I would like to have your point of view... To justify that I need to prove that the within-subject variance is less than the between-subject variance? Or that the within-subject variance is more than the between-subject variance?