https://communities.sas.com/t5/Statistical-Procedures/Effect-vs-parameter-significance/m-p/70226#M3410 Thanks lvm. I'm wondering the same thing but wanted to make sure that I wasn't overlooking something or not thinking through the problem correctly. Fri, 27 May 2011 12:42:00 GMT mostater 2011-05-27T12:42:00Z https://communities.sas.com/t5/Statistical-Procedures/Effect-vs-parameter-significance/m-p/70224#M3408 In a logistic regression, I have a categorical variable (3 levels) which the type III analysis of effects shows as non-significant (p &gt;.05). Yet in the model parameter estimates, one of the individual parameters is significant (p &lt;.05).<BR /> <BR /> I thought the type III analysis tests that at least one of the betas is not zero. So I was assuming that, if the overall effect is non-significant, then none of the individual betas (2 in my case) would be significant as well. Is my thinking wrong? Is this a multiple testing issue?<BR /> <BR /> Thanks for any help you can offer! Thu, 26 May 2011 21:11:06 GMT https://communities.sas.com/t5/Statistical-Procedures/Effect-vs-parameter-significance/m-p/70224#M3408 mostater 2011-05-26T21:11:06Z https://communities.sas.com/t5/Statistical-Procedures/Effect-vs-parameter-significance/m-p/70225#M3409 A significant individual parameter in your case could simply be due to a type I error. Fri, 27 May 2011 01:57:55 GMT https://communities.sas.com/t5/Statistical-Procedures/Effect-vs-parameter-significance/m-p/70225#M3409 lvm 2011-05-27T01:57:55Z https://communities.sas.com/t5/Statistical-Procedures/Effect-vs-parameter-significance/m-p/70226#M3410 Thanks lvm. I'm wondering the same thing but wanted to make sure that I wasn't overlooking something or not thinking through the problem correctly. Fri, 27 May 2011 12:42:00 GMT https://communities.sas.com/t5/Statistical-Procedures/Effect-vs-parameter-significance/m-p/70226#M3410 mostater 2011-05-27T12:42:00Z